From: kamatchi soundaram (kamatchiTDD.SJ.NEC.COM)
Date: Tue May 06 2003 - 12:21:03 CDT

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Hi alok!

  To forward and process IP looks for valid IP address in the received
packet. Since in the case of un-num p2p, there is no specific IP address in
OSPF point of view, the Valid IP address of the other interface, will be
used as the source IP address in the IP Header.

Btw: That's the reason OSPF specifies, to configure un-num p2p to an
interface of a router, the router should have atleast one valid IP address
(it may be for LAN or for loop-back).

GKS.
----- Original Message -----
From: "alok" <alok.dubeapara.com>
To: <OSPFdiscuss.microsoft.com>
Sent: Tuesday, May 06, 2003 12:11 AM
Subject: Re: un-num p2p clarification.

> > Hi all,
> >
> > I have the following two doubts in Un-num p2p for OSPF.
> >
> > 1) If I bring up an un-num p2p with one of the other interface's valid
ip
> > address (ex. LAN), does the un-num p2p need to be associated with the
same
> > "AREA" with which the LAN has been associated??? or can be associated
with
> > an different area address.
> > More clearly: The router R1 has three interfaces, but interface #1 has a
> > valid IP address and other two are un-num p2p interfaces. So, the two
> un-num
> > p2p interfaces will use the Ip address of Interface #1. Assume, the
> > interface #1 got associated with Area 0. Now the question is, can the
> un-num
> > p2p interfaces be associted to some other AREA other than AREA 0 or
not??
>
> hi,
>
> pardon me if this has already been asked,
>
> can u please explain as to why they would use the "IP address" of
interface
> #1?
>
> wouldnt Link-id be "router-id"?
>
> -rgds
> Alok
>

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